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Scotus on Immaculate Conception

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I was watching a movie about Duns Scotus today. Well, I tried. It was mind-numbingly boring so I didn't make it through the entire movie.

I was talking about it on Facebook with the man who pastored the Baptist church I used to attend and explained Scotus' idea about a perfect Redeemer and how there had to be at least one person perfectly redeemed. In explaining it to him a question occurred to me, if Jesus could do this for Mary, why would He not also do it for everyone? The only answer I could think of was that it would have violated our free will. However, if it violates our free will, it would also have violated Mary's free will. Any input?

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