Hello everyone,
I had a question about this verse. What my research has led me to believe is that this verse is foreshadowing the church bring about the conversions of gentiles, and also a "symbol" of Mary giving birth to Christ. So my question is, since Mary was immaculate in her own conception, thus without original sin, wouldn't she not have expierenced any pain during the birth of christ? If so, would this not be "just a symbol?" :confused:
Also I think the Roman Catechism teaches that Christ passed through her "as sunlight passes through glass."
Am I correct in my assumption there?
Thank you
- Arthur
I had a question about this verse. What my research has led me to believe is that this verse is foreshadowing the church bring about the conversions of gentiles, and also a "symbol" of Mary giving birth to Christ. So my question is, since Mary was immaculate in her own conception, thus without original sin, wouldn't she not have expierenced any pain during the birth of christ? If so, would this not be "just a symbol?" :confused:
Also I think the Roman Catechism teaches that Christ passed through her "as sunlight passes through glass."
Am I correct in my assumption there?
Thank you
- Arthur