Okay, I have been wondering about this for a while and thought I would ask to see if anyone knows the answer. Now, we know Mary was a virgin for her whole life even though she was married. There is also something that some practice in the church called a Josephite marriage (where they don't have sex in marriage except one time). I know that the Catholic Church does not recognize a marriage to be valid until it is consummated henceforth why those entering into a Josephite marriage have to have to consummate their marriage one time. Now why would their marriage not be valid if they did not consummate, but Mary and Joseph's marriage is even though they never consummated. It just doesn't make any sense to me.:shrug:
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