I need some help! I have a friend who is extraordinarily well read in all aspects Church teaching in history. Seriously! This guy knows his stuff, but he has gone away to seminary and I don't have him at disposal to answer questions. In a discussion we had recently he made mention that while at the Vatican II Council, bishops had an understanding or there was a statement made that many voted for Sacrosanctum concilium with the understanding that no major or dramatic change was to occur within the ordinary of the litrugy. If this is true this truly disturbs me regarding the outcome of the liturgical renovations after V2. Can anyone enlighten me whether this is true or nopt and where I could go to read about this particular issue. Thank you!
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