I've been trying to work through the Catechism on original sin. But there is no direct address to what St. Paul says in Romans 5:12-13 where he says ''sin is not imputed when there is no law'' and 4:15 ''where there is no law there is no transgression''.
Is he saying that the human beings who lived between Adam and moses did not have their sin imputed to then and they did not die for their own sin? If sin is not imputed and no one can transgress when there is no law, then doesn't this mean that what Paul is saying is that God is not looking at the hhuman beings who lived from Adam to moses but sees then through Adam who is their sinful representative? I know this is a protestant argument but I wanted to know the catholic understanding.
Is he saying that the human beings who lived between Adam and moses did not have their sin imputed to then and they did not die for their own sin? If sin is not imputed and no one can transgress when there is no law, then doesn't this mean that what Paul is saying is that God is not looking at the hhuman beings who lived from Adam to moses but sees then through Adam who is their sinful representative? I know this is a protestant argument but I wanted to know the catholic understanding.